1,500,000 = 9000 [(1+i/2)^10*2-1] 19%
1,500,000 = 2000 [(1+i/3)^10*3-1] 18%
18 % is the favourable option because we can get same
result with small amount of money. in first option
we ll pay 9000 * 20 = 180 000 and in second we ll pay 2000 * 30 = 60 000
in 10 years and the result is same 15 00 000. so second option is favourable
18 wala theek hay bcoz if u convert it compounded yearly rate then it comes
almost 53.20% and the other one comes 38.12% and moreover in 2nd case u invest
only 60000 whereas in the first option u have to invest 180000 so in second
option u will get more profit with less investment
Best Regards
Bilal Farooq
MBA 2nd Semester
Chakwal
From: vu_experts01@googlegroups.com [mailto:vu_experts01@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of mc090405107 Akmal Nadeem
Sent: Wednesday, April 28, 2010 6:25 PM
To: vu_experts01@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: || VU Experts 2009 || FW: || VU Experts 2010 || the solution of GDb MGT201....
Dear Bilal,
Please tell me that which option is wright 1 or 2 for the GDB and what will be the rate of interest please send me solution on WARD Page pleasesssssssssssss.
Looking forward for your kind and reply
With best regards
Nadeem
On Wed, Apr 28, 2010 at 6:19 PM, Bilal Farooq <bilal.zaheem@gmail.com> wrote:
Already emailed
Best Regards
Bilal Farooq
MBA 2nd Semester
Chakwal
From: vu_experts01@googlegroups.com [mailto:vu_experts01@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of Mustafa Butt
Sent: Wednesday, April 28, 2010 12:35 PM
Subject: Re: || VU Experts 2009 || FW: || VU Experts 2010 || the solution of GDb MGT201....
required gdb of mgt301 and mgt 211



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