1,500,000 = 9000 [(1+i/2)^10*2-1] 19%
1,500,000 = 2000 [(1+i/3)^10*3-1] 18%
18 % is the favourable option because we can get same
result with small amount of money. in first option
we ll pay 9000 * 20 = 180 000 and in second we ll pay 2000 * 30 = 60 000
in 10 years and the result is same 15 00 000. so second option is favourable
18 wala theek hay bcoz if u convert it compounded yearly rate then it comes
almost 53.20% and the other one comes 38.12% and moreover in 2nd case u invest
only 60000 whereas in the first option u have to invest 180000 so in second
option u will get more profit with less investment
Best Regards
Bilal Farooq
MBA 2nd Semester
Chakwal
From: vu_experts01@googlegroups.com [mailto:vu_experts01@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of mc090405332 Sumaira Rani
Sent: Wednesday, April 28, 2010 4:42 PM
To: vu_experts01@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: || VU Experts 2009 || Solved ENG 301 Asignment
salam'
required gdb of fm???????????????
On Wed, Apr 28, 2010 at 4:35 PM, mc090406720 Uzma Siddiq <mc090406720@vu.edu.pk> wrote:
i didnt copy...
i hv done it myself. m satisfied whether it is wrong or right...
--
Jab tumhein mehsus ho k tumhari
tabiyat ko zikar-e-khuda se mohabbat
ho gayi hai to samjho ALLAH tumy
pasand karny laga hai....
Wednesday, April 28, 2010
Re: || VU Experts 2009 || Solved ENG 301 Asignment
Dear Please send me the complete Solution of the GDB I am in tention
On Wed, Apr 28, 2010 at 6:27 PM, Bilal Farooq <bilal.zaheem@gmail.com> wrote:
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